Many verses of the Bible make reference to the "three day
and three night" prophesy (Matthew 20:19...etc.). Christian
scholars themselves make mention of several cases throughout the
Bible where people have put words in Jesus' mouth (see chapter
two). They also recognize many passages of the Bible as being
of a questionable nature. However, let us simplify this matter
a little in order to make it easier to recognize the tampering
fingerprints of the unscrupulous. Let us start with the assumption
that no human being ever added or removed a single word from the
Bible and move on from there. Please try to stay with me on this
and you will see how only a very small amount of logic will prove
that Jesus (pbuh) never said these words:
You would be hard pressed to find a single Christian today who
has not heard of the "three days and three nights"
prophesy. Where do they get it from? They get it from "the
Gospel of Matthew." What does it say? If we read Matthew
12 we will see how the Jews were giving Jesus (pbuh) no end of
trouble. They were constantly doubting him and refusing to accept
him. They had seen countless signs of his prophethood but insisted
on disbelieving. Finally they ask him for a sign of his prophethood.
How does Jesus (pbuh) allegedly respond to this request? Does
he draw their attention to his healing of the lepers and the blind?
No. Does he draw their attention to his casting out of devils?
No. Does he point out his raising of the dead? No. Does he mention
any of his other countless miracles? No. Well, what does he say?
He says:
"But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas: For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth"
Matthew 12:39-40
In effect, Jesus (pbuh) was claimed to have put all of his eggs
in one basket. He was telling them that "NO"
sign shall be given to them "BUT" the
sign of Jonas. This ONE sign shall ALONE decide
who is truthful, him or those who doubted him. This shall be the
"be all end all" acid test of his truthfulness.
Now, what is "Good Friday"? "Good
Friday" is the day Christians tell us Jesus (pbuh) was crucified.
In Merriam Webster's Collegiate Dictionary (tenth edition), it
is defined as "the Friday before Easter observed
in churches as the anniversary of the crucifixion of Christ."
This is also confirmed by the Bible:
"And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath"
Mark 15:42
So the Bible tells us that Jesus (pbuh) died on Friday, just before
nightfall.
According to the Bible, the Jews had been carting Jesus (pbuh)
back and forth on "Good Friday" between
Pontius Pilate and Harod trying to get a conviction
and official sanction to crucify him. After all of this carting
back and forth, they finally get him to the cross
and hang him up on it. However, no sooner have they gotten him
up on the cross than they are in a hurry to get him back down
again. Why is that? It is because they believed that if he remained
on the cross all night then he would defile their land.
"And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree: His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of God;) that thy land be not defiled, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance."
Deuteronomy 21:22-23
So the Jews begged Pilate to break Jesus' legs so that he would
die quickly from suffocation:
"The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the Sabbath day, (for that Sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.."
John 19:31
About the sixth hour (twelve noon), Jesus is claimed to be in
front of Pilate (John 19:14). According to the Bible
(e.g. John 19:30), Jesus died around the ninth hour (three PM).
During these three hours Jesus was dressed in purple with a crown
of thorns and made fun of, spat on, abused and beaten, and then
made to carry the cross to the location of his execution
(John 19:17), the cross was planted in the ground, he was hung
up on it, his title was written in Hebrew, Greek and Latin on
the cross, lots were cast and his clothes distributed, he spoke
to one of the two thieves and to an apostle, many people passed
before him and rebuked him, he was given something to drink, and
he died, all of which took place in these three hours,
and his legs were never broken. After that there was thunder,
an eclipse, and an earthquake,
the veil of the temple was rent in twain, and the dead came out
of their graves. Jesus (pbuh) was then let down and placed in
the shroud and the tomb. Early Sunday morning (the first day of
the week according to the Jews), while it was still dark, Mary
Magdalene visits the tomb alone (Mark 16:9, John 20:1) and finds
the stone moved and Jesus (pbuh) missing. Let us count:
| Event | Days | Nights |
| "Good Friday " | - | one |
| Saturday (the sabbath) | one | one |
| Sunday morning | - | - |
| Total | one day | two nights |
As you can see, it is impossible to add up the days and nights
so that they equal "three days and three nights."
Assuming that Jesus (pbuh) waited until just before the arrival
of Mary to leave the tomb, the Bible tells us that Jesus (pbuh)
was in the ground for ONE day and TWO nights. Has the prophesy
been fulfilled? Has the ONE "be all end all" sign to
the Jews been established?
Further, it is important to remember that Jonah was swallowed
alive by a whale and remained in its belly alive
for three days. His miracle was not that the whale swallowed him,
nor that it swallowed him whole, nor yet that he remained in it's
belly for three days (If I eat a piece of food and it remains
in my stomach for three days, is this a "miracle"?).
The miracle of Jonah was that HE DID NOT DIE. For
Jesus to have properly fulfilled the prophecy, he would need to
enter the tomb alive and come out alive just as Jonah entered
the whale's belly ALIVE and came out of it's belly ALIVE. Why
should Jesus give this of all signs if he was to die and
be resurrected? Where is the "miraculous" similarity
with the miracle of Jonah?
A Christian gentleman from Canada once asked us: "Why
do Muslims doubt that the scriptures always taught the death and
resurrection of Jesus." Can we now see why Muslims recognize
such claims to be later insertions and not the words of Allah's
elect messenger Jesus (pbuh) nor his most honorable apostles?
Have we made anything up? Have we not been quoting directly from
the same Bible every Christian has at home? For more, please read
Mr. Ahmed Deedat's book "Crucifixion or Cruci-fiction."
Indeed, Christian scholars are beginning to recognize that the
text of Matthew 12:38-40 was in fact embroidered by the church
in order to be able to claim that Jesus (pbuh) himself had prophesied
the crucifixion. The original form of this verse can be seen in
Mark 8:11-12, where we read:
"And the Pharisees came forth, and began to question with
him, seeking of him a sign from heaven, tempting him. And he sighed
deeply in his spirit, and saith, Why doth this generation seek
after a sign? verily I say unto you, There shall no sign be given
unto this generation."
... and that is all. There is no mention of "three
days and three nights"
nor "the sign of Jonah" nor anything else. These were
all added on later (please read section 2.1 for more on this topic).
As a side note regarding the renting of the veil
of the temple and resurrection of the dead, Mr. Tom Harpur
says
"The story of the saints' being resurrected from the tombs to the east of the city, just below the Mount of Olives, and going into Jerusalem is also the result of an attempt to give mythical form to the belief that Jesus was the "first fruits of them that slept," Surely an event of such stupendous dimensions, had it actually occurred, would have not only found its way into other Gospels (than Matthew) and letters in the New Testament, but would also have been recorded in some other Jewish or Roman historical source. Yet the record is silent."
For Christ's Sake, Tom Harpur, p. 102
It is also interesting to note that while those who were not apostles
(such as Luke) give detailed descriptions of all of these most
stupendous and earth-shaking events, in spite of that, the "Gospel
of John," which was supposedly written by the apostle John
the son of Zebedee, found it completely unnecessary to mention
any "renting of the veil
of the temple", or any "rising of the dead", or
any earthquakes, or any eclipses of the sun, or any of these other
most stupendous events. Did the apostle John feel all of these
events to be inconsequential and undeserving of mention, or has
the church been "embroidering" the events of the crucifixion?
Did the apostle John "not notice" the earth shaking
beneath his feet, or the sun being blotted out above his head?
Did he "not notice" the dead coming out of their graves?
It is interesting to further note that such "mourning of
all of creation" for the death of an important figure was
not restricted to Jesus (pbuh). Only seventy years earlier, Julius
Caesar's death was documented to have been
accompanied by similar stupendous acts of nature, as well as many
members of the clergy after that. (Go back and read chapter three
for more on this topic).
When prophet Muhammad's infant son Ibraheem died, his death happened
to coincide with an eclipse of the sun. All of the Muslims came
running to him exclaiming "It is a miracle, the sun itself
is mourning the death of your only son." Upon hearing this,
prophet Muhammad became very angry with them and said
'The sun and the moon do not eclipse because of the death of any among mankind. They are but two signs among the signs of Allah. When you see them stand up and pray.'
Narrated by AbuMas'ud in Sahih Al-Bukhari
The priest and scholar Anselm Turmeda*, who later became
a Muslim says:
"This description of the tragedy you have already read
has been completely derived from an old book. This record was
written by a Jewish historian when Titus conquered and destroyed
Jerusalem. Now we see the same phrases in the book of Matthew.
In other words, somebody has inserted these words into the Book
of Matthew."
(for more on Anselm, please read section 6.3 of this book)